The Change of Variable Formula Integrals, do they have equal value?
arXiv:2502.12679
Abstract
Assuming that the two integrals in the Change of Variable Formula for the Riemann integral on the real line are finite, one can rightfully ask if they have equal value. We give a positive answer to this question. The proof is very easy to follow and to keep in mind. The result is extended to improper Riemann integrals. Three examples are given.
21 pages (three more than the previous version), 3 figures, two lemmas have been added, a corollary to Theorem 2 has been added, a remark about substitution maps has been added, a remark about Pompeiu derivatives has been added